Consider an infinite system of masses m each distance a apart connected by springs with constant k. We want to find the position of each mass over time.
The equation of motion for block j is
x¨j=ω02(xj−1−2xj+xj+1).
Where ω02=mk.
Since the system is infinite it has translational symmetry. Substituting j~=j+1 results in the same physical system. We can write down a symmetry matrix representing this translation:
S=000⋮100⋮010⋮001⋮000⋱⋯⋯⋯⋱.
There are zeros down the main diagonal and 1s down the adjacent diagonal (it doesn’t matter which, but in this case we have chosen it such that j~=j+1.)
Now we guess a solution xj=Ajeiωt. By symmetry we can relate the amplitudes to say SA=βA where
A=⋮Aj−1AjAj+1⋮.
This gives us
AjAj+1Aj=βAj+1=βAj+2∝βj.
We can’t have the amplitudes going to positive or negative or infinity since that wouldn’t make sense physically, so we know that ∣β∣=1 so that repeatedly multiplying by β keeps the magnitude of the amplitudes constant. This gives us
Aj=eiKja.
We choose β=eiKa. Here K is called the wave number. We choose this form of β because it will make our result more useful later (no good justification for this except that it makes K physically useful).
We can plug in our initial guess into the equation of motion to find
This is a normal mode solution for a mass in a system of infinite coupled oscillators. Note that it is the product of two sinusoids, one oscillating with time and one with space (ja is just an initial x coordinate). The general solution will be a superposition of normal mode solutions, where each ω and K pair defines a normal mode.
Note
We used the example of masses moving horizontally connected by springs, but the solution we found is totally general. Depending on the system you will get a different ω0.
Applying the infinite solution to finite systems
Consider a system like shown below, with n masses connected by springs between two stationary walls.
How can we apply the solution for infinite masses to this (finite) system? Imagine this system is just a part of an infinite system, with masses continuing forever in both directions.
Recall our general solution is xj=Ccos(Kja+α)cos(ωt+ϕ). Having a wall before block 1 is equivalent to having a block 0 where x0=0, as pictured above.
x0=Ccos(α)cos(ωt+ϕ)=0.
The only way we can make x0=0 and still have an interesting solution (i.e. ω=0) is if we set α to be a multiple of 2π. We choose α=−2π.
We can do the same thing for the right wall. We set xn+1=0. Again the first cosine must be zero, and the only free parameter is K.
Let’s say now we have a system of masses connected by string constrained to move vertically. One end of the system is connected to a massless ring on a pole such that it exerts no force in the vertical direction on the connected mass. Assume the string has a constant tension T.
In this case our equation of motion (assuming small displacements) becomes y¨j=maT(yj−1−2yj+yj+1), so ω02=maT.
Since ring is free to move vertically on the pole without friction, we know that the y displacement of the ring will always be equal to the displacement of the block attached to it. As with the system attached to the wall, we will treat this system as a part of an infinite system, where blocks 0 and n+1 have special behavior.
The algebra will be easier in complex form, so we rewrite yj=(AeiKj+Be−iKj)cos(ωt+ϕ).